Landini Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the difference between a phase and the project lifecycle?
• Which process uses the schedule baseline to monitor schedule performance?
• Kanban is based on which concept?
• Qualitative Risk Analysis is used to prioritize risks based on what factors?
• Which quality tool is used to identify the most common causes of problems?
• What is Perform Procurements?
• Which artifact is used to capture knowledge gained during the project to improve future work?
• Float (slack) in scheduling, and how does it differ for the project finish date versus an intervening milestone?
• What is the main output of the Control Quality process?
• What is a Statement of Work (SOW) and its purpose?
• Rejected change requests should be communicated to stakeholders through which artifact?
• Which technique is used to prioritize risks by probability and impact?
• Which process is primarily responsible for monitoring and controlling project work to ensure alignment with the plan?
• Which project management process group is responsible for defining the project scope and the course of action required to attain objectives?
• Which document is used to capture identified risks, their characteristics, and planned responses?
• ERD relationship to depict one head coach
• Which artifact captures assumptions and constraints to be tracked through the project lifecycle?
• Which output is associated with the Control Quality process?
• Which diagram would you use to group related findings?
• The trend line on a Burn Down chart shows
• Which statement best describes Work Performance Information?
• Which technique is used to compare the benefits and costs of a project to decide whether to proceed?
• Which statement about tailoring and hybrid approaches is true?
• What is the main purpose of the WBS Dictionary?
• How do contingency reserve and management reserve differ?
• What is a Stakeholder Register and what information does it typically include?
• What are the five process groups in PMBOK?
• Which diagram is used to identify the most frequent causes of problems so that improvement efforts can be targeted?
• What is the purpose of the project charter?
• Which knowledge area includes planning, performing, and verifying quality?
• Root cause analysis - which diagram connects related contributors?
• A study that examines the viability of a potential recommendation to address business needs is known as:
• The CEO is thrilled about the success of the product trials and asks to expand the sampling; what should the project manager do first?
• Which contract type shifts most cost risk to the buyer?
• Which project management artifact is used to visualize the sequence and timing of activities?
• During Sprint Planning, which question is answered?
• What is the primary purpose of the Risk Register?
• Name a quantitative estimating technique used in cost estimation.
• In integrated change control, which group approves changes?
• If material costs budgeted at $10,000 are reduced by 10%, saving $1,000, and Schedule Variance is zero, what is the Cost Variance?
• What is the value of a Lessons Learned Register?
• Who is primarily responsible for grooming the product backlog in an Agile project?
• What is Trend Analysis and how is it used in Monitoring and Controlling?
• What is the purpose of the Stakeholder Engagement Plan?
• Which statement is true:
• Which document outlines how project information is collected, stored, and communicated to stakeholders?
• Qualitative Risk Analysis is used to prioritize risks based on what factors?
• When stakeholders need to visualize solution to refine requirements, which lifecycle is preferred?
• In communications management, what is the purpose of the communications requirements analysis?
• Which document defines the project scope and deliverables?
• What document is used to identify and analyze stakeholders and their needs and expectations?
• Which artifact should capture information about approved or rejected changes to avoid confusion among stakeholders?
• What is the Assumption Log used for?
• Which tool is commonly used to visualize project schedule?
• What is a Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) used for?
• With a To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) of 1.25, which statement best describes the project's status?
• What would a diagonal trend line that runs below the plan line signify on a Burndown Chart?
• Which of the following is true about closing a project or phase?
• What is Plan Resource Management and what does it produce?
• Which quality tool is used to determine the correlation between two variables?
• What is Tailoring in project management?
• What is Resource Leveling and when would you use it?
• What is a Quality Management Plan?
• Which document formally authorizes the existence of a project and grants the project manager the authority to apply organizational resources?
• In an Agile environment, product backlog refinement is performed
• In scheduling, what is the difference between a lead and a lag?
• Because of a delay in project activities, a key project resource now has been assigned two concurrent project assignments. When asked by the resource what to do, you should first:
• What is the primary purpose of the daily stand-up?
• What is the difference between acquiring resources and developing the project team?
• What is Close Procurements?
• Which statement about float in scheduling is correct?
• Which process focuses on leading and managing the project team, including resolving conflicts?
• Which Agile artifact lists the work items to be completed in an iteration?
• What is a Gantt chart and how is it used?
• What is the purpose of Stakeholder Analysis?
• What does Plan Resource Management produce?
• Which process yields Schedule Forecasts and Change Requests?
• Which process ensures procurement activities align with organizational policies?
• Which structure is used to categorize project resources by type and resource category?
• What are the components of the Scope Baseline?
• Which of the following is a persistent problem in elicitation sessions?
• Which document formally authorizes the project and grants the project manager authority to expend resources?
• The ability of a stakeholder to influence the project is:
• What is the Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix used for?
• The contract type with the lowest risk for the seller is:
• Which of the following is NOT a PMBOK knowledge area?
• A project manager may utilize these skills to reduce tension and promote cooperation when stressful situations arise among team members:
• Plan Schedule Management planning activity results in which document?
• What is the purpose of risk response planning?
• Which risk response involves shifting the risk impact to a third party, such as through outsourcing or insurance?
• Which output is produced by Plan Communications Management?
• If the diagonal trend line on a Burndown Chart runs above the plan line, what does this indicate?
• Which process involves obtaining bids or proposals from sellers and selecting a supplier?
• What is an Issue Log and how is it used?
• What is the critical path and why is it important?
• Urgency differs from Proximity in that:
• What does the term 'scope creep' refer to?
• What is the main output of Plan Risk Management?
• If EV = 110 and AC = 100, what is the Cost Performance Index (CPI)?
• What is the purpose of updating the risk register during risk response planning?
• Which term best describes creating a transparent working environment with open communication channels and opportunities for stakeholders to raise concerns without penalty or fear of retribution?
• What describes the difference between defining activities and sequencing activities?
• Incentives and awards within contracts may be used to:
• Which process yields the Project Management Plan?
• Which PMBOK process areas contribute to Performance Reporting?
• Which project management process group includes tracking, reviewing, and regulating the progress and performance of the project?
• The project sponsor would like to understand the team's performance during the last iteration. Which of the following would be appropriate for you to review with the sponsor?
• In quality management, which activity focuses on preventing defects by improving processes?
• Which process results in the Project Charter?
• Which knowledge area deals with defining and controlling what is included in the project scope and how requirements are collected and managed?
• Which knowledge management practice is regarded as the most important aspect?
• In the days following project kickoff, you notice several team members doing work not assigned to them, while other team members with subject matter expertise are not being included in requirements analysis. You immediately
• Which option best describes the Cost Baseline?
• Plan Scope Management and what does it produce?
• Which item is part of the scope baseline?
• Which project management process describes the activities performed to formally complete a project, phase, or contract?
• To ensure proper handling of changes, which plan governs the process of requesting, approving, and tracking changes?
• Which technique uses Must Have, Should Have, Could Have, and Won’t Have to prioritize requirements?
• Which process yields the WBS and WBS Dictionary?
• On a Burndown Chart, if the diagonal trend line runs below the plan line, what does this indicate?
• What is a cost baseline and how is it used?
• Which process results in the Project Management Plan?
• Which of the following best describes Close Procurements?
• Which is a basic cost element in project budgeting?
• Which option describes Cost Baseline?
• Which concept is used to tailor stakeholder engagement by considering influence and interest?
• Which statement correctly differentiates Work Performance Data from Work Performance Information?
• How does a change control system help governance in a project?
• To address stakeholders who understand high-level goals but not product details, which approach and lifecycle?
• The Gantt Chart may be used to analyze :
• What does Plan Communications Management determine?
• You learn that an application program interface failed during a quality control test and code is sent back to the development team for remediation. The labor charges associated with the rework is considered to be:
• In project performance tracking, what term refers to raw observations collected during execution?
• Which document is used to ensure all requirements are captured in the design and built into the end product?
• Which document defines acceptance criteria for deliverables?
• What is a milestone in project planning?
• Which concept is primarily used to balance resource usage by delaying tasks?
• What is the primary purpose of a Configuration Management Plan?
• In an Agile environment, which tool is used to track work completed in the current iteration?
• Which practice is considered most important for Knowledge Management to enable sharing among team members?
• Quality Control Measurements can lead to which outcome?
• What is the purpose of Plan Procurements?
• What is the difference between a procurement statement of work and a contract?
• Which statement best describes tailoring in relation to core PM concepts?
• Which knowledge area focuses on defining and controlling what is in and out of the project?
• Opening communication channels and opportunities for stakeholders to raise concerns without penalty is best described as an aspect of which project management concept?
• In which situation would a directing leadership style typically provide more clarity and momentum than a highly collaborative approach?
• What are Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs) and Organizational Process Assets (OPAs) and how do they influence planning?
• What are the basic cost elements in project budgeting?
• An activity has an early finish date of January 21 and a late finish date of January 28. What can be said of this activity?
• What is Control Procurements?
• Which statement about the WBS dictionary is true?
• In preparing an estimate, the relationship between duration and effort is:
• In project planning, which statement best describes the relationship between a constraint and an assumption?
• During a Sprint Retrospective, the team identifies an impediment involving a 3D printer. As a servant leader, which action best addresses the situation?
• Which ERD diagram would best illustrate data and relationships between entities?
• What is the primary purpose of the Project Charter?
• In agile and iterative development, which practice is used to deliver usable functionality in small increments?
• What is Stakeholder Engagement Planning?
• Which process group is primarily responsible for developing the project charter and identifying stakeholders?
• What is the difference between the project charter and the project management plan?
• What is the fundamental goal of Quality Management?
• Which metric compares the estimated cost of remaining work to the remaining budget?
• What is the purpose of closing a project or phase?
• What is a risk owner?
• Which quality tool is used to perform Root Cause Analysis?
• The inclusion of new information into the product's functional requirements as more details become known is called
• Which knowledge area is primarily concerned with identifying, analyzing, and planning for uncertainties that could affect the project?
• Which quality dimension corresponds to the description: Does the deliverable function as the project team and other stakeholders intended?
• What is Resource Leveling?
• What is the primary purpose of a traceability matrix?
• Which term describes analyzed information about status and performance derived from performance data?
• Which risk response option reduces probability or impact of a risk?
• Which contract type places the least financial risk on the seller?
• What is the purpose of the Assumption Log?
• You meet with your quality team to review their findings, where a Pareto Diagram is used to represent the :
• Which cost category includes costs of rework discovered after the product has been delivered to the customer?
• If you plan activities that aim to eliminate or reduce the probability of a threat occurring, what risk response have you chosen:
• Which process yields the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and WBS Dictionary?
• Which tool helps identify opportunities to eliminate waste caused by time traps and capacity constraints?
• What is Plan Procurement Management?
• Which statement describes resource leveling's effect?
• What is the difference between fixed-price and cost-reimbursable contracts?
• Which quality tool records variables and attributes during inspection?
• Which knowledge area focuses on ensuring the project has the necessary people and resources?
• Where are project constraints typically documented?
• Which element is created during Plan Procurement Management?
• What is the purpose of the Validate Scope process?
• Which items compose the scope baseline?
• Which description accurately defines risk ownership?
• Which metric indicates the rate at which the project budget is being spent?
• Scaling Agile is used to?
• Which index measures schedule performance as EV divided by PV?
• Which statement best describes what a change control system provides in project governance?
• Which plan describes how project communications will be generated, distributed, stored, and controlled, including formats, channels, and frequencies?
• What is the formula for Schedule Variance?
• What is a RACI chart and how is it used?
• Which Agile event is held daily to commit to near-term goals, uncover problems, and ensure that work flows smoothly through the team?
• Which outputs are produced by Plan Procurements?
• Which process focuses on leading and managing the project team, including resolving conflicts?
• A project paid $300 in unexpected fees before breaking ground. If the project is 80% complete, the forecast for Estimate at Completion is which of the following?
• How do quality assurance and quality control differ?
• What is qualitative risk analysis and what purpose does it serve?
• To prevent changes to product specifications being implemented without proper approval, review which project management plan?
• In integrated change control, which group typically approves changes?
• Which document specifies who is Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed for project tasks?
• In earned value management, which metric is the ratio of Earned Value to Planned Value (EV/PV)?
• Which metric is typically used to understand the team's performance in the last iteration?
• Which plan should you consult to ensure that all stakeholders are informed about project changes and status updates?
• NPV is calculated as ...
• Which process is used to monitor contract performance and manage procurement relationships?
• Which document defines how information about project progress is collected and communicated to stakeholders?
• What is Plan Quality Management?
• How is Cost Performance Index (CPI) calculated?
• Which project role is responsible for validating scope?
• Which cost measure compares the actual cost for labor or resources to the estimated cost?
• What is the purpose of Net Present Value in project selection?
• Which statement best describes actions when TCPI is greater than 1 and indicates future performance must improve to meet the plan?
• In PMBOK terminology, which process group contains planning activities such as Plan Schedule Management?
• In RACI terminology, which term refers to those participating in doing the work to complete the task?
• Which role typically approves or rejects change requests on a project?
• An agile framework that develops iteratively and builds incrementally, thus utilizes MoSCoW for prioritizing work requirements, and prototyping to engage stakeholders in early discovery is
• The Development Team should have all the skills needed to
• Which formula assesses cost performance and is defined as EV divided by AC?
• Which statement best describes a Communications Management Plan for a project?
• What is Work Performance Information?
• Which technique is used to prioritize risks by probability and impact?
• If a sponsor requests an expansion of scope, what should the project manager do first?
• What is the term for the sequence of activities that determines the project duration?
• When working on legacy system code with rushed decisions leading to sloppy documentation, this condition is identified during sprint planning as
• In earned value management, which metric indicates the difference between earned value and planned value?
• Why is a kickoff meeting important in a project?
• How does PMBOK address agile/adaptive approaches within CAPM?
• What documents are typically included in procurement bid packages?
• Which process uses the schedule baseline to assess deviations and forecast completion?
• What is a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and why is it important?
• What does the Scope Management Plan define?
• What is the purpose of Earned Value Management (EVM)?
• If Earned Value (EV) = 120 and Planned Value (PV) = 100, what is Schedule Variance (SV)?
• What is a risk register and what information does it contain?